I enjoy a press going on for STDs and HIVs!?

I am just wondering why does intercourse has one of the highest percentage of transmitting any sexual diseases? let say that the girl has an STD and the guy has sex lacking condom, the disease would transmit because the penis is touching the vagina? if that's the case, then if the guy sticks his fingers in the girl's vagina would that be kinda close to intercourse with the penis? i mean would the risk be about impossible to tell apart?
s wondering about it, i mean oral sex make sense why the disease would transmit. But I was wondering about intercourse. I know this may seem similar to a dumb question but I would like to know the answer. Also, after a person have sex, when would be the best time to get tested if he/she has a disease? I heard that its better if you continue a while, but i am not sure how long.
Answers:    Many STDs are spread via semen and vaginal fluids, which are exchanged during intercourse. This is why intercourse has the highest percentage of STD transmission.

This may comfort with your question about trialling http://std.about.com/od/overviewofstds/a…

If your partner has had 10 past partner, and each of those past partners have 10 partners themselves, you are potentially exposed to any STDs that at least 1000 people might own had. That's a scary thought, with 1 within 5 young people currently testing positive for some type of STD. Since frequent STDs have no symptoms, the actual number is probably even higher.

There are no dumb questions almost STDs. Source(s): Healthcare teaching assistant.


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